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Math Question

The proof that \( \triangle \mathrm{ACB}=\triangle \mathrm{ECD} \) is shown. What is the missing statement in the proof? Given: \( \overline{\mathrm{AE}} \) and \( \overline{\mathrm{DB}} \) bisect each other at \( \mathrm{C} \). Prove: \( \triangle \mathrm{ACB} \approx \triangle \mathrm{ECD} \) \( \angle B A C \cong \angle D E C \) \( \angle \mathrm{ACD}=\angle \mathrm{ECB} \) \( \angle \mathrm{ACB} \cong \angle \mathrm{ECD} \) \( \angle B C A \cong \angle D C A \)

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